Var debate 2019/20

100% correct yet they link the IFAB guidelines from their site. The Premier league have not just summarized they have changed the wording, they have added "accidental" to the creating a goal scoring line, when it simply isn't there on the IFAB guidelines.

IFAB have specifically took the word accidental out and gone out of their way to say the player handling/creating has to have possession/control of the ball, and THEN create a goal scoring opportunity in the Laporte incident.

And then you have another argument entirely whether Jesus had a chance straight from the arm. Jesus had to touch the ball to the side and create the space/opportunity for himself.
What if Jesus beat 4 players and scored, did Laporte still create the opportunity or did Jesus create his own opportunity by beating 4 men?

Far far too many grey areas the way it is written now.
It seems pretty clear to me that under the rules, the player needs to have gained possession or got the ball under control, and Laporte did neither. The ball after it his arm (if inded it did, and I am still yet to see evidence for that) could have gone anywhere. It certainly wasn't in our possession at that point and neither was it under control.
 
I see what you are saying, but HANDBALL is not on that list. That said, the fact that Oliver didn’t see it (under the current WRONG interpretation we are all fighting against), it who knows if it would have been a CLEAR AND OBVIOUS ERROR under the current guidelines??

Imprecise language is causing confusion.

Obviously, I haven’t seen Riley’s comments on TV and can only go by what is written in the Laws of the Game, but in your comments, you say Riley said,

The operator can provide them with replays in normal speed or in slow motion.


And that is THE most annoying thing most of all. The VAR didn't give a clear and obvious penalty on Rodri , where players appealed, thousands of fans appealed, us watching 1000s of miles away on TV appealed, our manager appealed who saw it and he was 50 yards away.

Yet it called a handball than not a single opposition player appealed for, a single Spurs fan saw or anybody on the coaching staff appealed for.

The authorities have got to look at those 2 decisions and realize VAR definitely did not work on that day.
 
The IFAB rules are crystal clear regarding the handball and the rule immediately following the control/ possession part provides definitive proof that the control/possession requires a two step action for the offence committed. I have highlighted the parts that make the rules crystal clear.

Note that the offence in the gains possession/control section contains exactly the same outcome as the last rule (scores in the opponents goal)

The rule clearly states that if the player gains possession/control AFTER the ball has touched their arm AND THEN scores in the opponents goal makes it a rule requiring two separate actions by the same player.

Why would IFAB differentiate between offences two and three if there was no need to identify the player as having to have control or possession of the ball.

It is an offence if a player:

  • deliberately touches the ball with their hand/arm, including moving the hand/arm towards the ball

  • gains possession/control of the ball after it has touched their hand/arm and then:
    • scores in the opponents’ goal

    • creates a goal-scoring opportunity
  • scores in the opponents’ goal directly from their hand/arm, even if accidental, including by the goalkeeper
 
The handball decision isn’t based on “clear and obvious error.” The Rodri decision was.


Between VAR and piss poor refereeing the outcome of the game against Spurs was seriously affected by two poor decisions by the officials.

How the fuck can this be a progressive move by the rule makers in order to improve the game ?

As is usual a situation which was flawed but just about palatable, has been made totally unpalatable due to the cack handed drafting and implementation of rules which benefit the defending team .
 
It seems pretty clear to me that under the rules, the player needs to have gained possession or got the ball under control, and Laporte did neither. The ball after it his arm (if inded it did, and I am still yet to see evidence for that) could have gone anywhere. It certainly wasn't in our possession at that point and neither was it under control.

Correct, and the way IFAB have written it makes sense. You don't want a player penalized for having no idea it hit his hand , and it was a complete accident, like Boley last week and Laoprte.

The way it is written is to stop the scenario of a player hand balling it, gaining control, then passing/setting up a clear goal scoring chance for a player.

The way the Premier have twisted it, makes no sense and penalizes a complete accidental handball that could have gone anywhere that the player knows nothing about.
 
Correct, and the way IFAB have written it makes sense. You don't want a player penalized for having no idea it hit his hand , and it was a complete accident, like Boley last week and Laoprte.

The way it is written is to stop the scenario of a player hand balling it, gaining control, then passing/setting up a clear goal scoring chance for a player.

The way the Premier have twisted it, makes no sense and penalizes a complete accidental handball that could have gone anywhere that the player knows nothing about.

Absolutely correct, so why can't these " professional referees " and expert" draughtsmen of the rules " see what is so bleeding obviously wrong with their interpretations and twisting of the rules ?

Corruption and/or a refusal to acknowledge their blatant incompetence.
 
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Correct, and the way IFAB have written it makes sense. You don't want a player penalized for having no idea it hit his hand , and it was a complete accident, like Boley last week and Laoprte.

The way it is written is to stop the scenario of a player hand balling it, gaining control, then passing/setting up a clear goal scoring chance for a player.

The way the Premier have twisted it, makes no sense and penalizes a complete accidental handball that could have gone anywhere that the player knows nothing about.
To be honest, I think the "accidental" part is a red herring.

Do we want a situation where a player in the box unwittingly has the ball strike his hand, but he turns around and finds it conveniently sitting there at his feet, so he nonchalantly pokes it home for a goal, with the defenders powerless to do anything?

I would we do not. Accidental handballs should also be an infringement in such circumstances. And this is IMO why their is no mention in the rules of whether it's accidental or not. It does not matter.

What matters is, did the player get the ball under control, or gain possession. In the example I give, he did, and therefore it should be flagged as handball. If the ball hits him and bounces off randomly somewhere, he did not, and it is not handball.

This latter description is what happened with Laporte. (If indeed it hit his arm at all.)
 
I might add, this is simply the essence of the laws of the game since 18 whenever it was. That your not allowed to use your hands to control the ball. It's as simple as that really, IMO.
 
Yep, still waiting for someone to offer proof. Not one single reverse camera angle.
No one?, anyone?

Looking back at the Sky footage there is a view from a camera in the corner where the kick was taken - sky clock shows 92:18.
Not conclusive to me who handles it. Could be either of them or even spurs man first and then Laporte. Not got HD , maybe that shows it clearer.
 
Here is where i am confused,the goal wasn't a clear and obvious mistake by the bottler but they can still disallow it for handball,why are they looking at it if it has to be clear and obvious? the rules are a nonsense that i don't think they understand either,most of them do not fit together,there are huge grey areas that shouldn't exsist in any system like this
You are conflating the two things.

Clear and obvious error and handball are two SEPARATE & DISTINCT VAR ISSUES.
 

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