Champions League Games 7/8 August

I would fancy our chances against barca if we get through, i would play the same line up for lyon game that played yesterday. We created alot of chances but remained compact except for the bemzema goal
 
So, let's see: The round of 16 is concluded, and Madrid (even their enemies believe they actually own the competition) have failed against City, defeated in both matches. Last season's winners (the best team England has ever produced according to mainstream national media) have failed against Atletico, also defeated in both matches. The same with last season's runner-up Spurs, knocked out by Leipzig, again losing both at home as well as away.

Oh, and Juventus get knocked out by Lyon, 7th in Ligue 1, missing competitive matches for like 5 months. Inter (before) and Napoli (the following night) will share the same fate. Which leaves Atalanta, I repeat, Atalanta, the only club representing the Serie A in this season's CL QFs, after winning twice and scoring 8 goals vs Valencia! Congratulations to G.P. Gasperini, he has done a fantastic job...

Bottom line: Football and sporting merit say a monumental "fuck you" to A. Agnelli (also to KHR, to Tebas and the rest of the Europeann "elite" representatives). I know you wish it's a bad dream, but it isn't. It's reality. You didn't earn it on the pitch, you're out. While Atalanta, Lyon, Leipzig (and the City you hate) will indeed travel to Lisbon. It hurts, doesn't it? I know it does. Tell you what, you don't like it, go and create your own ... Euro League, invite all the cartel clubs as permanent members, and fuck off. Personally, I won't miss you...
 
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Another look at this strange foul decision when player A wants to hit the ball and player B sticks a foot in from behind - being not in possession, doesn't touch the ball and therefore doesn't get in possession - and player B gets kicked (without even assuming player B had the plan only to be kicked, which is quite probable).

How can refs +VAR get that wrong?
What rule is interpreted here in a deluded way?
(besides it being Messi)


messi1.gif


messi2.gif


messi3.gif


messi4.gif
 
Another look at this strange foul decision when player A wants to hit the ball and player B sticks a foot in from behind - being not in possession, doesn't touch the ball and therefore doesn't get in possession - and player B gets kicked (without even assuming player B had the plan only to be kicked, which is quite probable).

How can refs +VAR get that wrong?
What rule is interpreted here in a deluded way?
(besides it being Messi)


messi1.gif


messi2.gif


messi3.gif


messi4.gif

It's unlucky but it's a stonewall penalty.
 

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