Question.
If a large PLC decides to top up the outstanding 20% of wages outside the government pay scheme, does that mean they can’t then claim the other 80% of the government and end up paying the full 100%?
Ive has this raised to me by a few working in the hospitality sector. I’ll not name the companies but they are big ones in the sector.
Essentially they have executed the furlough process, a round about way of lay off, to secure the long term sustainability of the business, and pay staff via the government pay scheme.