MillionMilesAway
Well-Known Member
Sorry if late to the debate but are you talking here about the AZ vaccine?
How do they know these details about effectiveness if the trial was done on a one dose basis with another given three weeks later I.e they've not reproduced the one shot only with no follow up scenario.?
The reason I ask is that Pfizer appear to have made this point by implication in saying they have no data on the effectiveness of one shot of their vaccine after three weeks if not followed by a second jab?
My understanding from what the MHRA said is that AstraZeneca/Oxford tried multiple interval options, and judged it from what they saw.