What does that bolded sentence mean? It's not a debt, that a bank or other financial institution sells to a third party if they don't think they can collect it. In this particular situation do we even need to do anything to mitigate any loss we may have suffered?
I'm well aware of the legal issues around mitigation of loss. I spent two years studying Commercial Law as part of my degree. I'm well aware that (a) there has to be a tangible loss (b) you have to show that there was a directly attributable cause of that loss and (c) you did your best to mitigate that loss or not make it worse.
So if these contracts were due to come into force in July this year, there has, as yet, been no effective loss. I'm fine with that.
But let's assume those two disputed sponsorship agreements were planned to start in July 2024, and that the Etihad one was for £90m and the FAB one for £10m per annum. Let's assume also that the PL said that Etihad couldn't be more than £60m and FAB £5m. We therefore had to renegotiate those contracts to those amounts. I think that constitutes a directly attributable cause.
So in this example, in this financial year alone we've "lost" a potential £35m that we could have received under those contracts, had we not been forced to amend them, under rules that have now been declared unlawful. I take that to mean that the conditions imposed are now unenforceable, and that the original proposed amounts should stand. In that case, we could collect the "lost" £35m under the original contracts and there's no loss.
But in the unlikely event that Etihad & FAB were to say "Sorry, we have a contract, that's what you told us to pay and we're not renegotiating" or the APT rules were lawful, then we've effectively suffered a potential loss.
Having spent a number of years working for an insurance company, I know that if you claimed for damage caused by a water leak, and you'd let that leak carry on for a while without making an attempt to fix it, wand your failure made the damage far worse and the cost to fix it much higher than it would have been to just fix the original leak, you would be rightly accused of failing to mitigate your loss, and any payout reduced.
This is around contract law though, and there has been no breach of contract that I can see. In my example there has been offer & acceptance. Etihad has contracted to pay us £90m and we've accepted. Neither party has breached that contract; the problem has come by a third-party who isn't a party to the contract imposing an arbitrary value on it, under rules that were subsequently declared unlawful.
I struggle to see how it's our duty to mitigate that, in this particular scenario, by going out and trying to find an additional £35m.