Damocles said:
Prestwich_Blue said:
You've made some good contributions to this debate but you really do not know what you're talking about above. Sorry to be so blunt but that's the only way I can say it. You're guessing whereas I know. We have documentary evidence of assurances given by UEFA that weren't upheld when the crunch came. The fact that they changed the rule regarding the wage exemption in a way that if you passed it in 2012, you failed in 2013 should be evidence enough. There's a long game to be played regarding the future of FFP (and you are quite right it won't disappear completely) but there's things that may happen in the short term where the connection may not be immediately apparent.
Then post it here.
If you can't or won't then it's totally irrelevant to the conversation and you shouldn't be using it in this debate.
Stupid comment from a supposedly intelligent person. 'We' as in City, not me. But if you do want documentary proof of UEFA's duplicity then I can provide that.
In the 2011 version of their FFP toolkit, which was in force when we did our 2012 accounts, they define the test to be used when deciding if a club can use the pre-2010 contracts wage exemption as follows:
For the avoidance of doubt, condition (a) means if the quantum of the aggregate break-even deficit that exceeds the acceptable deviation is greater than the quantum of the break-even deficit for the reporting period ending in 2012, then condition (ii) is not satisfied – because part of the break-even deficit in excess of the acceptable deviation is due to the break-even deficit in 2013 and/or 2014 (i.e. not only due to the break-even deficit of the reporting period ending in 2012).
It's not well worded but using their worked examples,
the quantum of the aggregate break-even deficit that exceeds the acceptable deviation is £77m. The next figure,
the quantum of the break-even deficit for the reporting period ending in 2012 is £83m. The former is not greater than the latter therefore the condition IS satisfied.
The other condition is
b. the aggregate break-even deficit that exceeds the acceptable deviation (for the reporting period ending i2012) is only due to contracts with players undertaken prior to 1 June 2010.
This time, we're comparing the £77m deficit to the £80m and quite clearly that deficit was wholly caused by the £80m. So we can use the £80m according to those tests, which were in place at the time the accounts were prepared. I believe that was confirmed with UEFA.
However, having presumably laid our cards on the table, six months later the condition in (b) has changed to:
b) the break-even deficit of the reporting period ending in 2012 is due to contracts entered with players
before 1 June 2010; i.e. the employee benefit expenses reported in FY12 due to players under contract before 1 June 2010 are equal or higher than the deficit of the reporting period ending in 2012.
The deficit of the reporting period ending in 2012 is £83m, which is clearly higher than the £80m and therefore this disqualifies us from using the £80m. Having published the 2012 accounts, it was obviously too late to make any adjustments to them in order to meet the revised requirement.
I simply can't imagine that City don't have a letter or some other confirmation from UEFA that we met the conditions to use the £80m wage exemption when the 2012 accounts were published. If so, would you agree that they're entitled to be annoyed?