Confusing question

It's not down the £70 cash though is it, as it got that back, but its down the £70 worth of stock, as they haven't received any money for the items from a buyer?

So the stock has gone and they've no money for in the till for it, so you'd have to right the stock off, which would be valued at the amount the shop paid for it, which would be less than £70.

As someone else said, we've not got enough info and we're plugging the gaps, but ultimately the store has lost stock and hasn't got the money in the till for the items.
Two Gun said it and as ever is purposely yanking everyones chain for laughs.

the goods have been paid for with the stolen cash, so the money for the goods has been put in the till, the goods are rang through and paid for and no stock lost.

the original £100 has been removed from the till so the store has lost that only
 
Dishonestly
Appropriates
Property
Belonging to another
With the intention of
Permanently depriving the owner of it.
 
The perpetrator has stolen £100 and then made a legitimate purchase of goods for £70. So the shop only needs to consider the loss of the original crime of the theft of £100. There’s no need to complicate matters any further as the perpetrator cannot claim to have made a genuine attempt to return the money in full or part, which in any case would be at the vendor’s discretion to accept.
 
Two Gun said it and as ever is purposely yanking everyones chain for laughs.

the goods have been paid for with the stolen cash, so the money for the goods has been put in the till, the goods are rang through and paid for and no stock lost.

the original £100 has been removed from the till so the store has lost that only

Two Gun isn't yanking anyone's chain. A very eminent small claims solicitor has already stated the £100 was NOT stolen.
To steal you have to have the intention to permanently deprive the owner of it. He did not have that intention, he clearly returned £70 whilst still in the store.
 
Two Gun isn't yanking anyone's chain. A very eminent small claims solicitor has already stated the £100 was NOT stolen.
To steal you have to have the intention to permanently deprive the owner of it. He did not have that intention, he clearly returned £70 whilst still in the store.

If he stole £100, then spent all of it in the shop, the shop would still have been £100 down, and he'd still have stolen £100. I just don't get how anything else is relevant.
 
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If he stole £100, then spent all of it in the shop, the shop would still have been £100 down, and he's still have stallen £100. I just don't get how anything else is relevant.
But he hasn't stolen the £100. Full stop. End off.
 
A man steals £100 from a shop’s cash register
He then carries on round the store and picks up £70 worth of goods
He goes to the checkout , pays for the goods with the stolen money and leaves the store with £70 worth of goods and £30 in cash

How much has the store lost?
Here's another one for you

On this particular day a rich tourist from back west is driving thru town.
He stops at the motel and lays a $100 bill on the desk saying he wants to inspect the rooms upstairs in order to pick one to spend the night.
As soon as the man walks upstairs, the owner grabs the bill and runs next door to pay his debt to the butcher.
The butcher takes the $100 and runs down the street to retire his debt to the pig farmer.
The pig farmer takes the $100 and heads off to pay his bill at the feed store.

The guy at the Farmer’s Co-op takes the $100 and runs to pay his debt to the local prostitute, who has also been facing hard times and has had to offer her services on credit.
She, in a flash rushes to the motel and pays off her room bill with the motel owner.
The motel proprietor now places the $100 back on the counter so the rich traveler will not suspect anything.

At that moment the traveler comes down the stairs, picks up the $100 bill, states that the rooms are not satisfactory, pockets the money & leaves.

NOW,… no one produced anything…and no one earned anything…however the whole town is out of debt
 

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