How Does the FA Make Retrospective Rulings?

He will get a three match ban. Let's accept it and move on. Although I do honestly believe the media have forced the issue, Sergio should have kept his cool.
 
Not sure there has to be actual contact for violent conduct. Remember VK getting sent off at the scum for a studs up/high tackle that didn't make.contact.
 
Contact is not required for violent conduct, striking or attempting to strike is how it's written in the laws.

It's a clear case of violent conduct imo
I assume violent conduct is a red card, 3-match ban offence. So why did both Fellaini and Fernandinho both only get yellow cards for what were probably worse offences?

Could Marriner say he didn't see it properly but even if he had it would only have been a yellow card offence?
 
If he gets a three match ban then fair enough, there is not much to complain about. The major issue for me is that people only get punished for this sort of thing about one in five times, with the FA trying their hardest to come up with any reason possible to not ban people. If they just banned everyone who deserved a red but got away with it, then the whole thing would be fine, but the reality is that even when it's a clear as day offence no one actually knows if the FA will ban them or not.
 
I imagine like the rest of football, it's kept deliberately vague so they can basically do whatever the fuck they want.
 
I assume violent conduct is a red card, 3-match ban offence. So why did both Fellaini and Fernandinho both only get yellow cards for what were probably worse offences?

Could Marriner say he didn't see it properly but even if he had it would only have been a yellow card offence?
Yes he certainly could say that although I think it's unlikely.
 

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