grunge
Well-Known Member
I wonder why the mutations seen in Omicron have not been seen in other strains? Hints at an immune-compromised source? If the individual mutations that define Omicron were advantageous then we would have seen them before on purely a statistical basis? In which case I think that each mutation is possibly deleterious or neutral and it is only when they are combined that it confers advantage. This suggests that for it form it would need to be in a single host?
there seem to be 2 trains of thought. Long running infection in a compromised human or jumped to animal and back.