Irwell
Well-Known Member
It's an interesting point. Is it possible that UEFA interpreted this differently anyway, even given the subsequent rule change?Prestwich_Blue said:If I've calculated it right, the total of the aggregate break even deficit exceeds the acceptable deviation by £76m. The break even deficit for 2012 was £83m. Therefore condition (ii) is satisfied which means we could have used the £80m exemption and escaped without sanction.
This is just as an example of my meaning off the top of my head and I am far from an expert in this regard, so it may well be that there are other rules that cover this particular scenario, but could it be that the acceptable deviation is only applied at the end of the process?
If that were the case it would mean that we were unable to demonstrate that the aggregate break-even deficit was only due to the 2012 annual break-even deficit as this would only be the case with the acceptable deviation applied. Maybe their interpretation is that if the entirety of the break-even deficit can be accounted for by the break-even deficit for the 2012 reporting period then the pre-2010 wages can be excluded and then as long as the subsequent aggregate break-even deficit is within the acceptable deviation we would be considered to have passed?
As far as I can see from the letter of that specific extract of the rules, the comparison is between aggregate break-even deficit and break-even deficit for the 2012 reporting period, with no allowance made for acceptable deviation.