dronefromsector7G
Well-Known Member
Haha, cunts
So what's the difference? How do you differentiate between them? Both would be scored after a player received the ball after a defender controlled the ball. What does the ref have to consider to arrive at a decision?Because the attacker hasn’t received the ball from his own player. There is no “unfair”advantage on the other team as they’ve given the advantage themselves from the pass back.
The grab is American, not ChinesePigmol changing another set in stone law/rule to “Interpretation” feels like a Chinese land grab tbh, they must hate these little loopholes that get exposed by those smart enough to see them
And now refs are left with interpreting "immediately". You could certainly argue that Rodri's intervention wasn't immediate as Mings had time to chest the ball down and rather ineptly bring it under control at his feet. What was needed was some ruling on how soon a player in an offside position could involve himself in challenging for the ball again.
I remember a few seasons ago, pre-VAR, when Sterling scored a far more questionable goal when in an offside position at the far post. A defender in front of him took a swing at the cross and deflected the ball straight to him. The linesman had his flag up, everybody assumed the goal wouldn't count, but the ref went over and had a word, then awarded the goal. This change in the law would still let that goal stand though it seems more dubious to me. Swansea was it? Anyway, first goal of the game when were struggling to break the opposition down.
So what's the difference? How do you differentiate between them? Both would be scored after a player received the ball after a defender controlled the ball. What does the ref have to consider to arrive at a decision?