PL charge City for alleged breaches of financial rules

Does anyone think there might be some fraud involved?
Man City chairman Al Mubarak: We absolutely regret Super League ...
 
When we are cleared & it becomes apparent that the execs of Rags & Dippers asked potential CEOs about City & the possibility of laying charges against City, would this be considered corruption?

What actions could be taken?

(I’ll accept any sentence with nuclear)
 
Does anyone think there might be some fraud involved?

OK. I couldn't resist. You trouble-maker.

No.

And I don't think the PL think so, either.

And if there was something that, under a strict legal defintion, could be considered fraudulent, it wouldn't affect the true and fair view given by the accounts anyway and so the most serious breaches fall away and we are left with some issues of how the numbers were presented to the PL.

Now I'll shut up again :)
 
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It’s possible that that date started the clock for PL to bring a claim on those matters and that then gave the PL 6 years which they were within.

Ok now I'm confused. Surely any limitation, if it applies, is defined in some way. I.e it is not any 6 years at any point, it is 6 years back from the start of any investigation. Isn't that the whole point, of limiting something back the way. It makes no sense to give a 6 year limitation ahead to an investigation starting, that's not a limitation of any kind really.

edit, there is quite a bit of subsequent discussion on this which may make any response moot.
 
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Ok now I'm confused. Surely any limitation, if it applies, is defined in some way. I.e it is not any 6 years at any point, it is 6 years back from the start of any investigation. Isn't that the whole point, of limiting something back the way. It makes no sense to give a 6 year limitation ahead to an investigation starting, that's not a limitation of any kind really.
It is defined in some way, namely under section 32 of the Limitation Act 1980, which states that the period of limitation shall not begin to run until discovery of the fraud [by the PL], or [when the PL] could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
 
It is defined in some way, namely under section 32 of the Limitation Act 1980, which states that the period of limitation shall not begin to run until discovery of the fraud [by the PL], or [when the PL] could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
In which case domalino's point is right, Der Spiegel articles 'could' be argued as the start of the limitation. As could the start of the PL investigation. But the one thing that doesn't make sense is it being 6 years for them to carry out their investigation, with no limitations of what is actually being investigated.

Unless I have completely misunderstood the act. Or river's post.
 
In which case domalino's point is right, Der Spiegel articles 'could' be argued as the start of the limitation. As could the start of the PL investigation. But the one thing that doesn't make sense is it being 6 years for them to carry out their investigation, with no limitations of what is actually being investigated.

Unless I have completely misunderstood the act. Or river's post.
Well of course it depends what trigger event(s) the PL are relying upon . Many have inferred it relates to the stuff associated with the Der Spiegel articles but that is a conclusion that is not assisted by the lack of meaningful particulars (or evidence) in the public domain relating to the charges.

So based on the current position about lack of particulars it’s pretty much impossible to evaluate when the limitation period begins and ends - and given the reasonable diligence arm of section 32 (notably distinguished from ‘all due diligence’) then there may be further arguments around limitation relating to that, possibly depending on what period the particular charge(s) relates to.
 

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