BurnCK
Well-Known Member
Which is the equivalent of saying that sometimes cops in America pull over black people, but they pull over white people too, and sometimes they don't pull over black people.
Hence it's paranoia / conspiracy theories to believe that cops may be biased against black people there, even if you present evidence that on average a black person is much more likely to suffer a stop and search.
Does that make sense?
Indeed, fully appreciate where you're coming from, except that I don't see a disparity between decisions for them and decisions against them, certainly not these days. Do they get that many more decisions in their favour? Whereas in your example there probably is a huge difference in numbers.