Tricky_Trev
Well-Known Member
- Joined
- 18 Jan 2009
- Messages
- 31,625
The way I read it is that since it starts with “if a PLAYER... gains possession/control AFTER the ball hitting his arm” it would mean that Laporte would have had to (accidentally) gain possession of the ball himself, not the team, but himself. I don’t know. I don’t think it’s particularly clear, and there are enough grey areas to allow goals for some teams and disallow them for others.Cheers for that.
I think we all agree that the first bullet point and last bullet point are not what's at question here?
It's the middle one that is....and it's the use of the word "or" that is the issue.....
The ball hits Laportes arm....it does create (non deliberately) a goal scoring opportunity. He never has control or is in possession (laporte) either of the ball or what happens with his arm (and ball).... the key bit is that we (the team) have gained possession from a handball ( non deliberate). I still read it as the ref has called it right and I always ask myself would I have given handball if i saw it during the match ( i know the ref didnt .....and I'm not a qualified ref either) but being completely honest I would have given handball as its hit his arm (and it doesn't have to be deliberate- though this is the bit I believe is completely wrong with the law as it stands) and the attacking team have retained possession because of it and a goal scoring opportunity has arisen.
What needs to change is that it must be deliberate use of the hand to create a goal scoring opportunity. However we then get the arguments about how you prove intent which in a lot of cases is difficult so from another point of view I can see why they have tried to go so black and white on it