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Rag!My first post ! I've followed the debate in the media ( Man City News Now - useful facility ! ) and I keep on reading ( re. Sterling's penalty ) that the Swansea player gets to the ball first ( e.g. Sunday Times -" The American stuck out a foot,caught ball rather than man, but Sterling tumbled" ). It is also the same story on the bluemoon thread. I am confused :
I keep on returning to the YouTube highlights coverage of the game to reassure myself that I am not mistaken - Sterling gets in front of the Swansea man ; he cuts across him : he stretches (with his right foot) and toe-pokes the ball forward and is then-inevitably- wiped out by the challenge from the Swansea player. The Swansea player does not get the ball ! So why all the fuss? Need I ask ?. It's a clear penalty. ( Oh, and by the way - why so little comment about the two-handed shove in Aguero's back as he scores the 3rd goal ? )
Agenda?
I thought Sterling touched the ball first,the Swansea player gets a slight touch but follows through taking out Sterling-pen for me.