Neville Kneville
Well-Known Member
My first post ! I've followed the debate in the media ( Man City News Now - useful facility ! ) and I keep on reading ( re. Sterling's penalty ) that the Swansea player gets to the ball first ( e.g. Sunday Times -" The American stuck out a foot,caught ball rather than man, but Sterling tumbled" ). It is also the same story on the bluemoon thread. I am confused :
I keep on returning to the YouTube highlights coverage of the game to reassure myself that I am not mistaken - Sterling gets in front of the Swansea man ; he cuts across him : he stretches (with his right foot) and toe-pokes the ball forward and is then-inevitably- wiped out by the challenge from the Swansea player. The Swansea player does not get the ball ! So why all the fuss? Need I ask ?. It's a clear penalty. ( Oh, and by the way - why so little comment about the two-handed shove in Aguero's back as he scores the 3rd goal ? )
Agenda?
In the FA Cup game v Reading, Manchester Utd, (who were being generally outclassed by a lower league team on their own ground) were given a penalty, for contact made AFTER the ball had been played (to a player in an offside position) & this gift was given by nonother than v.a.r. overturning the original decision.
Now, the calls are for v.a.r. to do the absolute opposite, & take away a penalty from someone still in possession of the ball, after the challenge. It's a fucking pen, with or without v.a.r. & nobody would even be discussing it, if it happened against us.
Same with Bernardo the other day. Happened right in front of me, at the ground, bloke bounces into his leg: clear & obvious PENALTY. Afterwards, all this shit about it being 'soft'.
Look at it in real time, rather than diffusing the effect of the contact with slomo.
And the offside was a close offside. We've had scores of them, for & against. More against. Striker got the benefit, wasn't obvious, get on with it.