The Supreme Court does not. They slightly modified an earlier ruling (which explicitly accepted the supremacy of EU law) to acknowledge that it could be arguable that certain fundamental principles enshrined within such matters as Royal Charters were not abrogated by the European Communities Act 1972. It repeated the fundamental principle that EU Law has supremacy in UK law. And doesn't for a single second accept your claim that the UK can choose to vary from EU if it wishes to do so.
It is a reference to saying the EU might (might) not be able to override something like habeas corpus which is fundamental to UK principles, not that the UK is free to ignore the latest directive passed by the EC and EP.
You either know this, in which case your claim is mendacious, or you do not, in which case it is ignorant.
Oh dear.
This is a direct verbatim quote from para 43 of the Miller judgment:
“Parliamentary sovereignty is a fundamental principle of the UK constitution, as was conclusively established in the statutes referred to in para 41 above. It was famously summarised by Professor Dicey as meaning that Parliament has “the right to make or unmake any law whatsoever; and further, no person or body is recognised by the law as having a right to override or set aside the legislation of Parliament" -
op cit, p 38.””
The words ‘any law whatsoever’ really could not be clearer. EU law can be overridden by Parliament if it chose to do do, because Parliament’s legal authority to make law in the UK is unlimited. It could make it a crime to be Donald Tusk if it wanted. It can do anything including disapply repeal or amend any EU law.
Not satisfied by the word of the highest court in the land, the ultimate authority on what is the law in the UK? Okay let’s try something else.
Here are the opening words of section 2 of the Government white paper on Brexit, formally titled ‘The United Kingdom’s exit from and future relationship with the European Union’:
“The sovereignty of Parliament is a fundamental principle of the UK constitution. Whilst Parliament has remained sovereign throughout our membership of the EU, it has not always felt like that. “
Do you see that second sentence?
“Parliament has remained sovereign throughout our membership of the EU”? I really can’t explain it any simpler than that. That is why I say that at here has been no loss of sovereignty at all. Because there hasn’t been.
By all means don’t take my word for it, but if you think the Supreme Court and the Government are both talking shit about a basic constitutional principle I can’t help you any more.
Oh and by the way, the nasty little ad hominem attack at the end? Drop it or you will get it back with interest.