MillionMilesAway
Well-Known Member
Hmm. Forget the loan for a minute.
I think it's to do with having the income from the original cash financing and the subsequent amounts due to the financing company in the same place.
So if you record the cash received from the finance company as operating revenues, then you should show the financing company's share of future revenue as a reduction of operating revenues in the appropriate years.
If you don't do that, you are effectively counting the revenue as operating revenue twice, once when you receive it from the financing company, and again when you get it from your customer.
I suppose it's possible the original cash receipt from the financing company was also included on a non-operating line, but I doubt it.
Of course, this could all be bollocks.
That's how I read it from the brief look I had - book the income as operating income, and then book that share's outgoing as non-operating expenses.
My terminology may be a bit screwy!
I'd imagine Barcelona and Atletico won't be letting it lie!
