Mad Eyed Screamer
Moderator
1979 Sunderland
1980 ?????
1981 Villa
1979 Alan Sunderland
1980 Trevor Brooking
1981 Ricky Bastard Villa
1979 Sunderland
1980 ?????
1981 Villa
Difficult to know about the questioner's intentions from the question. As phrased it allows for managers who have managed the same or other teams in winning finals.
Wenger.
He's lost the Champion's League and UEFA Cup Finals with Arsenal, and I'm pretty sure he took Monaco to the ECWC final years ago.
If the question had asked for just the 2 current UEFA cups, Maureen would have been a correct answer even though he also won both. If an additional condition was 'and never won one' Maureen would be a wrong answer.Given the question asks for the only manager to achieved the feat, and Wenger has achieved it whilst also never winning any of the 3 trophies at any time then, surely by default, the intent was to find a manager who had lost in all 3 finals and never won any of the trophies? After all, the correct answer is a manager who fulfils those criteria.
If the question had asked for just the 2 current UEFA cups, Maureen would have been a correct answer even though he also won both. If an additional condition was 'and never won one' Maureen would be a wrong answer.
As I said, the wording is ambiguous. It all depends how you've interpreted what is meant by the word "them", you've taken it to mean the aforementioned finals, whereas I've taken it to mean the aforementioned competitions. So, where the question says "Who is the only manager to have managed teams in all three UEFA club competition finals (Champions League, UEFA Cup and Cup Winners' Cup), without winning any of them?" it's the word "them" that is the sticking point.
The word 'finals' is chronologically and logically anterior to the word 'comp' (sic) hence in normal usage relates to the word 'them'. It's not ambiguous.As I said, the wording is ambiguous. It all depends how you've interpreted what is meant by the word "them", you've taken it to mean the aforementioned finals, whereas I've taken it to mean the aforementioned competitions. So, where the question says "Who is the only manager to have managed teams in all three UEFA club competition finals (Champions League, UEFA Cup and Cup Winners' Cup), without winning any of them?" it's the word "them" that is the sticking point.
Sounds right to me, didnt mean to mislead. how would you have worded it ?
The word 'finals' is chronologically and logically anterior to the word 'comp' (sic) hence in normal usage relates to the word 'them'. It's not ambiguous.