Football Trivia Question of the Day (continued)

Difficult to know about the questioner's intentions from the question. As phrased it allows for managers who have managed the same or other teams in winning finals.

Given the question asks for the only manager to achieved the feat, and Wenger has achieved it whilst also never winning any of the 3 trophies at any time then, surely by default, the intent was to find a manager who had lost in all 3 finals and never won any of the trophies? After all, the correct answer is a manager who fulfils those criteria.
 
Given the question asks for the only manager to achieved the feat, and Wenger has achieved it whilst also never winning any of the 3 trophies at any time then, surely by default, the intent was to find a manager who had lost in all 3 finals and never won any of the trophies? After all, the correct answer is a manager who fulfils those criteria.
If the question had asked for just the 2 current UEFA cups, Maureen would have been a correct answer even though he also won both. If an additional condition was 'and never won one' Maureen would be a wrong answer.
 
If the question had asked for just the 2 current UEFA cups, Maureen would have been a correct answer even though he also won both. If an additional condition was 'and never won one' Maureen would be a wrong answer.

As I said, the wording is ambiguous. It all depends how you've interpreted what is meant by the word "them", you've taken it to mean the aforementioned finals, whereas I've taken it to mean the aforementioned competitions. So, where the question says "Who is the only manager to have managed teams in all three UEFA club competition finals (Champions League, UEFA Cup and Cup Winners' Cup), without winning any of them?" it's the word "them" that is the sticking point.
 
As I said, the wording is ambiguous. It all depends how you've interpreted what is meant by the word "them", you've taken it to mean the aforementioned finals, whereas I've taken it to mean the aforementioned competitions. So, where the question says "Who is the only manager to have managed teams in all three UEFA club competition finals (Champions League, UEFA Cup and Cup Winners' Cup), without winning any of them?" it's the word "them" that is the sticking point.

Sounds right to me, didnt mean to mislead. how would you have worded it ?
 
As I said, the wording is ambiguous. It all depends how you've interpreted what is meant by the word "them", you've taken it to mean the aforementioned finals, whereas I've taken it to mean the aforementioned competitions. So, where the question says "Who is the only manager to have managed teams in all three UEFA club competition finals (Champions League, UEFA Cup and Cup Winners' Cup), without winning any of them?" it's the word "them" that is the sticking point.
The word 'finals' is chronologically and logically anterior to the word 'comp' (sic) hence in normal usage relates to the word 'them'. It's not ambiguous.
 
Sounds right to me, didnt mean to mislead. how would you have worded it ?

If I intended the question to be like George has interpreted it then something like:-

Name the only manager to have been in charge of the losing side in the Champion's League Final, UEFA Cup Final and European Cup Winners Cup Final.

If I intended the question to be like I have interpreted it to be then:-

Name the only manager, never to have won a European trophy, yet have been in charge of the losing side in the Champion's League Final, UEFA Cup Final and European Cup Winners Cup Final.
 
The word 'finals' is chronologically and logically anterior to the word 'comp' (sic) hence in normal usage relates to the word 'them'. It's not ambiguous.

The word "them" falls after the list of each competition (written in brackets) so can be interpreted to be related to the competitions as much as it can the finals. And it's clearly ambiguous as people have interpreted it in 2 different ways, and the original question asker has confirmed his intent was for it to be interpreted in the way that I did.
 

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