Except it is not.
The whole premise of the law, is subjective, when it comes to advantage beig played. The wording defines it as 'wait and see' and every word used is 'may'. The whole point is to make a call on whether the advantage played materialsed or not.
There are only two ways in this scenario the decision can be (subjectively) correct.
The goal stands. OR, the goal is disallowed because of Haaland's foul. But without then going back one event further.
The advantage played either materialises, or it doesnt. If the tussle which happens within 2-3 seconds is one event, then it materialises and the goal counts. If they are two separate fouls, then the advantage doesn't materialise, because he wastes it by committing a foul.
Anywhere else on the pitch,if advantage is played, and the attacking player commits a foul in the next passage of play, they don't then get the original free kick.
The whole thing is based on a discretionary view of whether the advantage was worthwhile, so the idea it even Can be 'by the letter of the law' is misplaced.