PL charge City for alleged breaches of financial rules

Those of you interested in the legal definition of “acting in good faith” may be interested in this article I found via Google.


Some of the main points are-
  • the “core” requirement of the good-faith duty is that a party behaves honestly;
  • depending on the contractual context, this duty may be breached by conduct taken in bad faith, which could include conduct which would be regarded as “commercially unacceptable by reasonable and honest people”; and
  • any further requirements of an express duty of good faith must be capable of being derived as a matter of interpretation or implication from the other terms of the contract.
I’m not smart enough to know how this impacts our case but it seems to me it’s massively open to interpretation. I’ve got a feeling the whole case may rest on the interpretation of this.
 
Conversely, I assume that there is no rule saying that they cannot be deducted
There are strictly defined costs that can be deducted in the rules. Legal fees isn't one of them.

There is a possibility on Form 3a to explain how the numbers provided haven't been prepared in accordance with the rules, but that sounds like a breach to me ;)

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Those of you interested in the legal definition of “acting in good faith” may be interested in this article I found via Google.


Some of the main points are-
  • the “core” requirement of the good-faith duty is that a party behaves honestly;
  • depending on the contractual context, this duty may be breached by conduct taken in bad faith, which could include conduct which would be regarded as “commercially unacceptable by reasonable and honest people”; and
  • any further requirements of an express duty of good faith must be capable of being derived as a matter of interpretation or implication from the other terms of the contract.
I’m not smart enough to know how this impacts our case but it seems to me it’s massively open to interpretation. I’ve got a feeling the whole case may rest on the interpretation of this.

Well the dippers didn't get charged 'with acting in good faith' when hacking our emails.
The hateful 8 didn't get charged with 'acting in good faith' by sending that letter.
City should be fine going by the previous cases.
 
Those of you interested in the legal definition of “acting in good faith” may be interested in this article I found via Google.


Some of the main points are-
  • the “core” requirement of the good-faith duty is that a party behaves honestly;
  • depending on the contractual context, this duty may be breached by conduct taken in bad faith, which could include conduct which would be regarded as “commercially unacceptable by reasonable and honest people”; and
  • any further requirements of an express duty of good faith must be capable of being derived as a matter of interpretation or implication from the other terms of the contract.
I’m not smart enough to know how this impacts our case but it seems to me it’s massively open to interpretation. I’ve got a feeling the whole case may rest on the interpretation of this.

Possibly, but unless I'm mistaken (which may well be the case!) bad faith doesn't mean fraud so 'bad faith' stuff will still be subject of time barring limits under English law unless fraud can be proved first? A good few folks on here will be able to confirm that or set me straight?
 
Setting a precedent its something that we can use in our defence
My first question to Masters would be Why have you charged Manchester City for things that allegedly happened 12 years ago when you didn't charge Liverpool for Hacking City's database as " It was too long ago" By the way, you have charged Manchester City for breaking EUFA FFP. Man United were found guilty by EUFA and fined for breaking FFP but not charged. Why not?
 
reading this again I think you're thinking that the manager has a renumeration rule.
This isn't the case only the players do

"Full details of a Player’s remuneration including all benefits to which he is entitled whether in cash or in kind shall be set out in his contract."

That is the P7 rule, yes. I am saying the PL are looking beyond the form of his contract with the club (which probably complied with rules P7 and P8 as written, especially post-Leicester) to the substance of his employment by the club for the purposes of the accounts. It's two separate things in my book. There are many problems with that approach in terms of proof, but it's (to me at least) the only one that makes sense. Unless you think the PL and it's lawyers have just got it all wrong.

We have probably bored everyone for long enough with this. Happy to discuss in PM if you want :)
 
Possibly, but unless I'm mistaken (which may well be the case!) bad faith doesn't mean fraud so 'bad faith' stuff will still be subject of time barring limits under English law unless fraud can be proved first? A good few folks on here will be able to confirm that or set me straight?

I would imagine acting in bad faith is a key part of the PL's conspiracy case. Without it, I am not sure they can even talk of a conspiracy case.

But what do I know? :)
 
Those of you interested in the legal definition of “acting in good faith” may be interested in this article I found via Google.


Some of the main points are-
  • the “core” requirement of the good-faith duty is that a party behaves honestly;
  • depending on the contractual context, this duty may be breached by conduct taken in bad faith, which could include conduct which would be regarded as “commercially unacceptable by reasonable and honest people”; and
  • any further requirements of an express duty of good faith must be capable of being derived as a matter of interpretation or implication from the other terms of the contract.
I’m not smart enough to know how this impacts our case but it seems to me it’s massively open to interpretation. I’ve got a feeling the whole case may rest on the interpretation of this.

Abstract as fuck. Probably purposely so.
 

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