BrianW
Well-Known Member
- Joined
- 6 Mar 2006
- Messages
- 6,058
- Team supported
- There's Only One City
You would need an awful lot of complex facts before you. And then you would have to consider all the implications. As I said, 97% of immigrants under the Tories came in with legal visas.
Now, as the Tories did not gain any political advantage by allowing such huge immigration, what was their motive?
My presumption is they judged it an economic necessity or at least an economic advantage. What other possible motive would they have? (I don't believe conspiratorial BS like 'they were obeying the WEF'.) But seriously, why would a Conservative government - a Conservative government - allow huge immigration if not for economic reasons? I really struggle to see what other motive there would be. It is electorally unpopular, especially among Tory voters. What is the reason?
Now, as the Tories did not gain any political advantage by allowing such huge immigration, what was their motive?
My presumption is they judged it an economic necessity or at least an economic advantage. What other possible motive would they have? (I don't believe conspiratorial BS like 'they were obeying the WEF'.) But seriously, why would a Conservative government - a Conservative government - allow huge immigration if not for economic reasons? I really struggle to see what other motive there would be. It is electorally unpopular, especially among Tory voters. What is the reason?