Mazzarelli's Swiss Cheese
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- Joined
- 12 Apr 2019
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I suppose the argument lies in which takes precedence domdestically. Intl law or the domestic law. Previously the EU Court would presumably have been the higher power although I don't profess to really know how this all works. It's clearly wrong for a non EU member to be subject to EU law / court, but is there an international court of law that may find in the EU's favour and who's authority is above all? I suppose the EU could decide to impose sanctions on the UK, just as a state or group of states does. I'm assuming apartheid in SA was against international law, but we didn't have the power to actually make them stop it, we just used the pressure of sanctions and exclusion. That avenue would probably be open to the EU - declare us a rogue state or evil axis or something and impose a trade embargo.Well, yes. That’s the only interpretation that can be made from that statement, given it doesn’t give any legal advice on the area that is actually being breached. Given she is qualified, as you say, it’s clearly not a competence issue, so clearly it’s been deliberately written in that way.
We’ve had it before where AGs have pushed the boundaries. I can’t remember anyone ever before just ignoring them so brazenly though. I mean, trying to write into domestic law something designed deliberately to breach international law really is a wow moment for anyone really interested in the subject.