I'm interested in the sale of Chelsea and in particular the loans that RA made to the club. I understand that the club never broke the break even rule and that they never had to pay a penny in interest on these interest-free loans. What I find problematic is that RA has said many times that he does not want one penny of the £1.65 billion he "loaned" the club back. In what way then were they loans? They appear to be that most hideous of threats to the game, disguised owner investment. Or perhaps one of our accountants could put me right?
There's nothing to see here.
It was over the period from 2003, and owner investment was allowed for the 10 years (roughly). £709 million by 2009 according to wikipedia, when that was turned into equity.
It also covers all the infrastructure work done, which would be exempt from FFP anyway.
Chelsea are owned by a holding company called Fordstam. Fordstam 'loan' the money, Abramovich funded Fordstam.
Whether he wants the money back or not is entirely up to him, unless he wants to write it off (unlikely).
Relation to FFP:
None basically.
FFP accounts are not the same as club accounts - things like infrastructure are exempt. There is no point trying to equate them as accounting practices make them different animals.
e.g. the 150 million:
The club gains 150 million, but owes 150 million.
If it's spent on infrastructure, the effect on FFP accounts is zero.
If it's spent on players (say 5 year contracts), it appears as 30 million/year for 5 years.
So you can see there isn't a 'standard' comparison.