Prestwich_Blue
Well-Known Member
These have genuinely been very interesting posts but overlook one key factor that renders them pretty irrelevant. The UN agreed a partition plan in 1947. The Arabs refused to accept it and attacked the newly formed Israeli state once they declared statehood. As a result of that war, they lost areas that were assigned to them in the UN plan. In 1949 there was an armistice that set the borders of what we now know as pre-1967 Israel. So whatever went before, whoever owned what field or village, those borders are a fact on the ground and internationally recognised, regardless of whether you think the partition plan was right or wrong. As SWP's Back said, many borders have been shaped by wars, conflicts and resultant treaties.That's the key word then would you admit? since you used it, "controlled".
I assume when you say Ottoman you mean the first map.
It's true that the Ottoman had control over the lands, but ownership were still Arab Palestinians, and the Ottomans themselves called the land Palestine.
During Ottoman's control and after, the UNCCP held records of more than 530,000 land ownership documents for Arab Palestinians. I mentioned this in my previous post. Although you may want to insist the first map being a blank canvas of Ottoman Empire, the evidence and documents are there that
1. The lands the Ottoman controlled were individually assigned before during and after their control to more than 530,000 Arab Palestinians.
2. The Ottoman refer to the land as Palestine. In fact, the history of the land based on ancient maps from Ptolemy to Herodotus, Ovid to Avicenna, and commentaries from Einstein to Avi Shlaim refers to the land pre 1948 as Palestine.
Thus, Not only map 1 shows Palestine as the name of the country, but also shows the background of its landowners. They are not mostly absentee landlords as established in its inquest. They are mostly owned by Arab Palestinians.
On the Jordanian and Egyptian controlled lands. Egypt never annexed Gaza, it only went under military control. Militarry occupation, in international law, is defined by a temporary control of power without any claim for permanent sovereignty. This, the land may be controlled by Egypt, ownership is still Palestinian. An excellent case is Indonesia's control over Timor Timur. The Indonesians didn't annex the country but simply rule it by military power. It's lands were still owned by Timorese, and upon relinquish of control Timor Leste, the independent state was born, complete with its Timorese owned lands that never could exchange hands.
Jordan did annex West Bank and in doing so had sovereign rights. However, this sovereign rights was only recognised by Pakistan and the United Kingdom. Furthermore, Jordan was itself a new nation and 70% of its populations are Palestinian by reference. The West Bank is Palestine before, Palestinian during and Palestine after.
Finally, on your assertions of handing over occupied land back to Palestine. You do know that the UNSC and US State Department both do not recognise these occupied lands as owned or controlled by Israel, right? Because they are - as words used by these agencies - illegal, a flagrant violation of international laws as well as a violation of the Geneva Convention, and not to mention based on commentaries of prominent individuals as human rights violations and a possible war crime, making this token gesture a moot point.
As part of any settlement you would hope that anyone who can prove ownership of land in pre-1967 Israel will be paid compensation for that, n the same way that people who lost property in the Final Solution have been compensated upon providing appropriate proof. One would also hope that there would be a reciprocal arrangement by which those Jews who were forced to leave Arab or North African countries and leave much of their property behind would also be compensated.