Texas court halts sale of Dippers

I still don't get it. How can a decision of a Texas court be binding on the High Court?
 
Prestwich_Blue said:
Halfpenny said:
Surely a Texan court has no jurisdiction over a UK company governed by UK commercial law?
But the holding company is probably registered in the US.

The shareholder is a Delaware LLC. But here what is at stake is the interpretation of contracts governed by English law and expressed to be subject to the jurisdiction of English courts (loan agreement and ancillary documents) and the constitutional documents and actions of the directors of an English company domiciled in England (Kop holdings).

It's hard to see the basis on which a Texas court can claim jurisdiction (though I admit to complete ignorance on Texas law).

Funny though!
 

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