flook
Well-Known Member
great question, you're obviously not in control so given the definition being posted here you would have to say not.......The whole situation is ridiculous imo.
Is blocking a shot called making a play for the ball?
great question, you're obviously not in control so given the definition being posted here you would have to say not.......The whole situation is ridiculous imo.
Is blocking a shot called making a play for the ball?
They’ll certainly be some explanation as France have lodged an official complaint. Whether it bares any resemblance to what actually occurred we’ll probably never know.
My guess is they’ll turn down the appeal, as it’s a dangerous precedent to set, they’ll explain away the confusion as a communication malfunction and the officials involved will be told to pack up their whistles and quietly fuck off home.
The decisions of the referee regarding facts connected with play, including whether or not a goal is scored and the result of the match, are final. The decisions of the referee, and all other match officials, must always be respected.
No, as per the James Milner review in the scouse derby.The whole situation is ridiculous imo.
Is blocking a shot called making a play for the ball?
Bar Messi.probably the first major tournament without players throwing themselves down in the box without contact claiming a penalty
Thanks for all your research and clarification of VAR decisions. It is appreciated.
FIFA may admit a mistake was made or they may confirm the decision and dismiss the appeal. One thing is for certain, they won't change the outcome of the game. Law 2 contains the following:
There are precedents for replaying a game - when Arsenal scored against a lower league side after scoring from a throw in that came from opponents kicking the ball out of play because an Arsenal player was injured. But nobody will want that as an office to this scenario.
This demonstrates that VAR is becoming too complicated for even highly trained professional referees to fully understand, and as others have said, the situation need simplifying.
great question, you're obviously not in control so given the definition being posted here you would have to say not.......
It isn’t, because it is a deflection and not deemed an intentional play of the ball.Well, if it isn't, then why not, at a free kick just outside the box, have an attacker a couple of metres to the side of the keeper to pick up any deflections?
It isn’t, because it is a deflection and not deemed an intentional play of the ball.
To answer your second part, you can’t as it would be given offside.
It’s just infuriating that actual referees see things like they did yesterday and make random decisions.See? It's so complicated I got confused.
I win :)