where did he minimilise it?
where is mentioning the language used in the 1930 by the nazi party about not only jews but gypsies, communists, capitalist, intellectuals, the disabled, poles, czechs, slovacs and any non arian anti semetic?
The actual languafe used in propaganda writren in the years 1933-1937 it is quite similar to what the tories are spouting now.
If he had accused Sunak and Braveman of wanting to mass murder amd exterminate immigrants and asylum seekers then yes he would have crossed a line, but he never did and never compared this to the final sollution or the horrors that came after the rhetoric of the early 30s.