Cambridgeblue
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Brucie Bonus said:Summarize: v.tr (also -ise)...
Concise (1,800 pages) Oxford English Dictionary, Clarendon Press, Oxford. 9th Ed, 1995. (my copy)
It's actually "ize". We are wrong, not the Yanks. It's been brought in from French (through schools) as an affectation, and from Down Under through the media into mass culture. We've gone over this before on the forum.
Anyway:
<a class="postlink" href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_and_British_English_spelling_differences" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;">http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_a ... ifferences</a>
see: -ise, -ize
"The OED firmly deprecates usage of "-ise" for words of Greek origin, stating, "[T]he suffix..., whatever the element to which it is added, is in its origin the Gr[eek] -ιζειν, L[atin] -izÄre; and, as the pronunciation is also with z, there is no reason why in English the special French spelling in -iser should be followed, in opposition to that which is at once etymological and phonetic."
It goes on to say "... some have used the spelling -ise in English, as in French, for all these words, and some prefer -ise in words formed in French or English from Latin elements, retaining -ize for those of Greek composition."[47] Noah Webster rejected -ise for the same reasons.[48] Despite these denouncements, however, the -ize spelling is now rarely used in the UK in the mass media and newspapers, and is often incorrectly regarded as an Americanism.[49]"
Summarise is not a word of greek origin - it comes from the Medieval Latin summarius which in turn comes from the Latin summa meaning total, whole, essence or gist. The OED rule therefore does not apply.
Noah Webster was an American Lexicographer and writer of An American Dictionary of the English Language and as such his opinion does not carry any weight when we are considering the correct British usage. According to Wikipedia "His most important improvement, he claimed, was to rescue "our native tongue" from "the clamor of pedantry" that surrounded English grammar and pronunciation. He complained that the English language had been corrupted by the British aristocracy, which set its own standard for proper spelling and pronunciation. Webster rejected the notion that the study of Greek and Latin must precede the study of English grammar."
Hence why the American's use -ize for everything... because they ignore the classical root of the word, which would suggest to me the the use of -ise is historically correct for words of Latinate origin at least as early as 1828. It would suggest that the American usage is not a "pure" usage that has preserved a historic british usage in isolation but is in fact a corruption based on an ideological and nationalistic bias.