gordondaviesmoustache
Well-Known Member
I think the Advertising Standards Agency was held to be a public body, but that was because they were performing a function that the state would if it didn’t exist.Indeed. This is what has been said extensively here for years now. However, I have raised one possible reason why this basic rule may be called into question. I assume there is a large body of case law which indicates that seeking a JR is impossible in our or similar situations.
The leading case on this point is:
![en.wikipedia.org](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/1/1c/Royal_Coat_of_Arms_of_the_United_Kingdom_%28St_Edward%27s_Crown%29.svg/1200px-Royal_Coat_of_Arms_of_the_United_Kingdom_%28St_Edward%27s_Crown%29.svg.png)
R (Datafin plc) v Panel on Take-overs and Mergers - Wikipedia
In fact I’ve just found a case R v Football Association ex p Football League Ltd [1993] 2 All E.R. which held that football associations are not subject to JR even though they have monopolistic powers.
So I think it’s pretty clear! :-)