nmc
Well-Known Member
I have a question. When does "new money" become "old money"?
We know that the rags were on the verge of bankruptcy twice, in 1901 & 1931, and were bailed out by 'sugar daddies', So when did Gibson's money, which paid their wages, bought players and rebuilt their stadium, become 'organically generated'? Or the loans they took out to finance Baconface's team building?
We know that Danny Fiszman put money into Arsenal in the mid 1990's. I asked Tony Adams that at the FA Cup draw when it was held at the Etihad and he said that was what he'd been told. When did that stop being 'new money'?
We know that the Moore's family financed Liverpool's success in the 1970's and beyond. When did that stop being 'new money'?
Spurs raised a load of money on the Stock Market in the 1980's. Prior to that they were crippled by what was the largest debt in football, after a rebuild of parts of WHL. That money came from investors, not from success in the CL or commercial sponsorship. When did that become 'old money'?
We all know about Chelsea and they actually give us the answer to the question I think. Taken over in 2003 by Abramovich and now they're an 'old money' club, despite the fact their owner still bankrolls them.
The answer is that 'new money' clearly became 'old money' when our takeover happened, which was 23rd September 2008.
You know the answer... the answer lies with whomever is writing the narrative so - the elites shady dealings, government handouts, stock market flotations, backhanders and direct investments were and always will be old money whereas our equity investments will always be new money or Petro dollars. The last few days have confirmed just how establishment led the football media is in the UK hardly a brain cell, an ounce of integrity or a degree of courage amongst them.