What I don't understand is why he would "apply a higher bar" in this game. It's pretty obvious that one of the teams will rely on possession and sophisticated tactics, ane one on physicality because they are less skilled. May sound patronising but it's the truth. So the physical team gains an advantage at the expense of the more skilled team. What does the referee expect to happen?
Ignoring the questions of consistency, I can see why it may happen with two "evenly matched" teams, City and Arsenal say, or City and Liverpool (as long as VAR is on the same page), but City and Forest, what is the thought process there?